Does anyone know when the Greek word arsenokoitēs was first translated to "homosexual"? I grew up in the Evengelical Lutheran Church of America and, out of interest, I bought a copy of the Luther Bible which was first published in 1534. This was the first translation in the German language and I saw that he translated it to Knabenschaender (child abusers), which has nothing to do with homosexuality. The first main English Bible, the King James version, translated it to be "abusers of themselves with mankind". As far as I can tell, the word "homosexual" wasn't used in the Bible until the 20th century in the multitude of translations that were then published. I've also heard that before the 16th century, arsenokoitēs was taken to mean "masturbation"... So did the King James translation make gay sinful? or was Paul's writing of arsenokoitēs always considered to mean "gay"?
Well it never even says "homosexual". It says "Though shall not lie with mankind as with womankind: for it is an abomination". And of course, it can mean many things, considering the bible is full of symbolism. But who knows. But no, it's been in the Bible since it was first written. That's why the Roman Empire went from embracing it to making it punishable by death once it embraced Christianity. I have read the Luther Bible and (in English at least) it does say homosexuality is a sin.
Ok, sorry, the end of my original question threw the whole thing off... I meant "was the King James version the first time that arsenokoitēs was translated to reference homosexuality?" Translations of the Hebrew in the Old testament to the vernacular is consistent in condemning homosexuality, but the translation of the Greek isn't always as clear. My question was more concerned with if anyone knows what translation first made arsenokoitēs to mean homosexual. Sorry for the confusion
I don't know what people translated or interpreted arsenokoites as back in the day, sorry. But from what I kind of remember reading, and this might be pretty off the mark, Paul might have used the word in reference to passages in the septuagint surrounding male-male relations in Leviticus. This might mean that Paul still supported the whole 'man shall not lie with man' thing, though what that actually means in Hebrew is debatable. I also think in this context, arsenokoites is found with the Greek word for femininity(?), pointing to interpretations of dominant and passive partners, whether this is prostitution, pederasty, something else… But I have no idea about the various translations of that particular passage throughout history.
people who hate gays will use any means to try and get rid of them, the Bible is just a convenience. Ever see someone go into a biker bar and say they're all going to hell because they have tattoos (Leviticus 19:28), noooooooooo. Ever see someone with a sign outside of Red Lobster with a sign that says: "God hates people who eat shell fish!!!" ? (Deuteronomy 14:1-29 ) noooooooooo. Look what the Bible says is Irrelevant, we live in the 21st century. Look at the Bible as a guideline to create an individual relationship with the Lord, and NOT as a strick set of rule to which a bunch of crazy people in robes get to tell you which ones should and should not be followed
the word 'homosexual' itself was only coined a couple of hundred years ago? I think? I remember it was looked down upon by sticklers for language because it's an awkward mix of greek and latin
I believe it was coined in a psychology book in 1865 but didn't get any widespread use until the late 1890's.
the bible says homosexuality is a sin. it also says cussing, stealing, lying, adultry, covetting, etc etc etc etc is a sin. Lucky for us God forgives us for our sins. I dont think any of us are going to hell..
'Homosexual' is a barbarously hybrid word, and I claim no responsibility for it. ---Havelock Ellis, Studies in Psychology (1897) I love that quote. On the original question, apparently Paul coined the word, or at least was the first to use it, so it's kinda hard to know what he meant. Several sites say that Philo held that Paul was condemning seomthing called shrine prostitution (a practice where temples also served as brothels), and he is at least contemporary. But you'll never convince anyone that they should believe differently based on an etymological argument, especially when most of the time fundamentalists aren't aware they're dealing with a text that's been translated at least 3 times and go on to make specific assumptions of the modern meaning of words in their English translation. Also, Paul isn't exactly known as the world's most tolerant fellow anyway, so it's entirely possible he was attacking homosexuality.
I took a course on Paul earlier this year, and my prof is of the opinion that Paul does condemn homosexuality, but in a roundabout way because he isn't sure it's going on. Since she's a NT scholar, I bow to her opinion. Basically, Paul held to OT sexual ethics, and those ethics were interpreted at the time to condemn homosexual behavior.
