Hi, let me start from the beginning I met the guy im with with in September Before I slept with him I was a virgin So that means we have been together for six months We stopped using protection about two months in, and I started taking the contraceptive pill. I thought I could trust him. In about December I decided I should get tested just to make sure everything is fine. I was tested for everything, and the results came back fine. I was clear of everything. No need to worry. Within the last month, so since the beginning of February I started to feel different. I could tell something was not right with my body. Then I started to need to pee all the time, then I started have pain when peeing, and then I started to pee blood. So I want and got tested again. Turns out I have chlamydia now. He is the only person I have ever slept with so it is from him I know that for a fact. But I dont know if this means he cheated. I have let him know, and asked him who he has been sleeping with, and he says no one. He says he has not slept with anyone else since before he slept with me. He said he must have had it since then... ...but if he had it since then, wouldnt I have got it by December when I first got tested, and wouldnt it have shown up? Why has it only just affected me? Someone please give me advice. If I got it recently, does that mean he recently slept with someone else who had it. I need to know.
According to the Wikipedia entry on Chlamydia: So it's entirely possible that you got it when you first had sex with him and are only now showing symptoms.
Considering the above post, I think he's being honest with you. Did your discussion end in an argument about him being faithful, or were you two pretty civil? If so, you might owe him an apology.
