So, for about six months know I've identified as panromantic. But thinking about it now, I can't ever remember ever really being attracted to a guy... I've had boyfriends before, but they've always been more like friends to me. I was only in the relationship to make them happy, and the farthest it ever went physically (with anyone) was holding hands. Girls, on the other hand... I've always felt a bit more drawn to them? They're more aesthetically pleasing and I've always connected with them emotionally better. The only person I've ever felt romantically attracted to is biologically female, and I was in love with her long before she came out as agender... So I don't know if I'm panromantic or homoromantic... Can a pansexual/romantic have a preferance? If so, I'm probably panromantic but leaning towards girls, but if not (I've seen it both ways from different sources: pansexuals can have a preference and pansexuals can't have a preference). In theory, I could imagine myself with a male version of this girl I like, but I'd love her even if she was a three-headed fire breathing dragon. I'm just confused.
I think it's perfectly reasonable to have a preference. With something as complicated as sexuality, which is so different for everyone, I don't think you can say "no, if you identify as Pansexual you must be attracted to everyone equally". At the end of the day, labels are what you choose to most describe how you feel.
