I just took the Kinsey Scale Test and my result was 2 "Predominantly heterosexual, but more than incidentally homosexual." Does this make me bi? How do you define bisexual. Thanks in advance for your answers my lovelies.
I'd say yes, this probably reads out to something like "Bisexual with a preference for *insert your gender here*" The predominantly part means that you do indeed have a preference, but the more than incidentally part means that you are certainly not straight.
Bisexual means that you're attracted to both genders, and not necessarily in the same way. I slide around 2-4 a lot, so I classify as bisexual. Took me a while to get there though.
Yeah, 2 is supposed to mean bi with preference for opposite sex However, only you can determine the correct number, not some test
I really can't put much faith in that test. I scored a 2 yet have predominantly been with guys and prefer gay sex to heterosexual sex.
I took a bunch of those tests. When I got the answer, I would think in my head either "That sounds about right," or "Ehh... I'm not sure that I agree with that." Suddenly it dawned on me: I had known all along! That is where those reactions came from! Those tests determine your sexuality from the information that you supply.
Yep, 2 is bi but leaning a bit more towards straight than gay. Kinsey scale tests can be interesting but I wouldn't put too much stock in the results. I find that some of the questions kind of miss the point, e.g. focusing on your sexual history rather than who you're attracted to. You'd be better off reading up on the Kinsey scale and deciding for yourself which number (if any) fits you best. Edit: I started googling tests after reading this thread and came across one that I thought was pretty good: http://www.*******.com/tests/the-kinsey-n-klein-orientation-test The questions focus on attractions rather than sexual history, and my result was in line with how I identify (5). On other tests I've gotten 3's because my history is mostly with men.
Getting a result on a test doesn't make you bisexual (I think we all know this, but it's worth saying). However, *being* a Kinsey 2 *does* fit the definition of bisexuality. So forget the test, and ask yourself the question "do I have significant attraction toward women?" (like, actual sexual contact with them seems kinda appealing) Then ask yourself "do I have significant attraction toward men?" (like, actual contact with them seems kinda appealing) If the answer to both questions is "yes" (don't even think about whether one yes is stronger than the other yes), then *that* means you are bisexual.
I don't think a test can really gouge a persons sexual ordination, but it might mean you really are bi. I myself am trans female but attracted to females, meaning I am technically straight, but not normally.
Yes. Home run. ---------- Post added 16th Jul 2015 at 08:32 AM ---------- I'd also say go explore and discover and stop worrying about test results.
